✅ NISM Research Analyst Mock Test – Chapter 3 Securities Market Structure & Products (30 Most Expected Questions)


Q1. Which of the following is not a function of the primary market?

A. Mobilizing savings
B. Facilitating trading of existing securities
C. Price discovery for new issues
D. Allocation of capital


Answer: B
Explanation: The primary market handles issuance of new securities (mobilizing savings, price discovery, capital allocation). Trading of existing securities is a function of the secondary market.


Q2. The secondary market deals with:

A. New issue of securities
B. Trading of existing securities
C. Government securities only
D. Corporate bonds only


Answer: B
Explanation: The secondary market (stock exchanges) provides a platform for buying and selling already-issued securities.


Q3. Which market ensures liquidity of investments?

A. Primary market
B. Money market
C. Secondary market
D. Foreign exchange market


Answer: C
Explanation: The secondary market enables quick buying/selling of securities, providing liquidity to investors.


Q4. An IPO is issued through:

A. Secondary market
B. Primary market
C. Commodity market
D. Forex market


Answer: B
Explanation: An Initial Public Offering (IPO) is a new issue of shares sold to the public in the primary market.


Q5. The minimum post-issue capital that must be offered to the public in an IPO is:

A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%


Answer: D

Explanation: Regulations require a minimum percentage of a company’s post-issue capital to be held by the public—commonly 25%—to ensure adequate public float (subject to regulatory specifics).


Q6. A company’s existing shareholders get the right to subscribe to new shares in:

A. IPO
B. Rights issue
C. FPO
D. QIP


Answer: B
Explanation: A rights issue offers additional shares to existing shareholders proportionally before offering to the public.


Q7. The minimum trading lot in equity shares is called:

A. Market lot
B. Delivery lot
C. Settlement lot
D. Limit lot


Answer: A
Explanation: Market lot (or lot size) is the minimum quantity of shares that can be traded in a single transaction on the exchange.


Q8. Which market instrument has a maturity of less than 1 year?

A. Corporate bond
B. Treasury bill
C. G-sec
D. Preference share


Answer: B
Explanation: Treasury bills (T-bills) are short-term government instruments with maturities typically under one year.


Q9. Commercial papers are issued by:

A. RBI
B. Central Government
C. Corporates for short-term funds
D. Mutual funds


Answer: C
Explanation: Commercial Paper (CP) is an unsecured short-term instrument issued by corporates to meet short-term liabilities.


Q10. The safest debt instrument is:

A. Debentures
B. Treasury bills
C. Commercial papers
D. Company fixed deposits


Answer: B
Explanation: T-bills are government short-term securities backed by the sovereign and are considered very low risk.


Q11. Which of the following is a hybrid instrument?

A. Equity share
B. Preference share
C. Debenture
D. Treasury bill


Answer: B
Explanation: Preference shares have features of both equity (ownership) and debt (fixed dividend), making them a hybrid instrument.


Q12. Preference shareholders receive:

A. Voting rights
B. Fixed dividends
C. Guaranteed returns
D. No dividends


Answer: B
Explanation: Preference shareholders typically receive fixed dividends before any dividend is paid to ordinary shareholders (but usually have limited voting rights).


Q13. A mutual fund NAV is calculated:

A. Weekly
B. Monthly
C. Daily
D. Quarterly


Answer: C
Explanation: Net Asset Value (NAV) of open-ended mutual funds is computed daily after market close based on closing prices of portfolio securities.


Q14. ETFs are traded on:

A. Primary market
B. Secondary market
C. Money market
D. Capital market only


Answer: B
Explanation: Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs) are bought and sold on stock exchanges in the secondary market throughout trading hours.


Q15. A closed-ended mutual fund is listed on:

A. NSE & BSE
B. Primary market only
C. RBI
D. Only at AMC office


Answer: A
Explanation: Closed-ended funds are issued through an IPO and are listed on exchanges (NSE/BSE), where units trade among investors.


Q16. Face value of a T-bill is paid:

A. At purchase
B. On maturity
C. Never
D. Through AMC


Answer: B
Explanation: T-bills are issued at a discount and the face value (full amount) is paid to the investor on maturity.


Q17. Which instrument always trades at a discount?

A. Corporate bond
B. Treasury bill
C. Debenture
D. Preference share


Answer: B
Explanation: Treasury bills are discount instruments sold below face value and redeemed at face value at maturity.


Q18. The market where long-term securities are issued is called:

A. Capital market
B. Money market
C. Forex market
D. Commodity market


Answer: A
Explanation: The capital market deals with long-term securities (equity, long-term debt), while the money market handles short-term instruments.


Q19. Which is a money market instrument?

A. CP
B. NCD
C. FPO
D. QIP


Answer: A
Explanation: Commercial Paper (CP) is a short-term money market instrument; NCDs are typically longer-term and belong to the capital market.


Q20. An FPO is issued for:

A. New investors
B. Existing shareholders
C. Raising additional capital after IPO
D. Debenture holders


Answer: C
Explanation: A Follow-on Public Offer (FPO) is used by a listed company to raise additional capital from the public after its IPO.


Q21. NCDs with maturity greater than 1 year are part of:

A. Money market
B. Capital market
C. Forex market
D. Primary market only


Answer: B
Explanation: Non-Convertible Debentures (NCDs) with maturities over one year are long-term debt instruments and are part of the capital market.


Q22. Derivatives derive their value from:

A. Underlying assets
B. NAV
C. AMC
D. IPO price


Answer: A
Explanation: Derivatives (futures, options, swaps) get their value from an underlying asset such as an equity, index, commodity, or currency.


Q23. Which is NOT a derivative product?

A. Futures
B. Options
C. Swaps
D. G-secs


Answer: D
Explanation: Government securities (G-secs) are debt instruments, not derivatives; futures, options, and swaps are derivative contracts.


Q24. Call option gives:

A. Right to buy
B. Right to sell
C. Obligation to buy
D. Obligation to sell


Answer: A
Explanation: A call option grants the buyer the right (not obligation) to buy the underlying asset at a specified price.


Q25. Put option gives:

A. Right to buy
B. Right to sell
C. No rights
D. Guaranteed profit


Answer: B
Explanation: A put option gives the buyer the right (not obligation) to sell the underlying asset at the strike price.


Q26. Market capitalization is:

A. Share capital × debt
B. Share price × total outstanding shares
C. Dividend × EPS
D. Profit × face value


Answer: B
Explanation: Market cap = Current market price per share × Number of outstanding shares; it indicates company size.


Q27. Beta measures:

A. Return volatility
B. Market value
C. Liquidity
D. Promoter holding


Answer: A
Explanation: Beta measures a stock’s volatility (systematic risk) relative to the overall market (beta >1 = more volatile).


Q28. Which asset class has the highest risk?

A. Equity
B. Debt
C. Gold
D. Liquid fund


Answer: A
Explanation: Equity is generally considered higher risk (higher return potential and volatility) compared with debt or liquid instruments.


Q29. A demat account is maintained with:

A. SEBI
B. Depository participants
C. RBI
D. Mutual funds


Answer: B

Explanation: Demat accounts are opened and maintained by Depository Participants (DPs) who operate under depositories like NSDL/CDSL.


Q30. Depositories in India:

A. NSDL & CDSL
B. NSE & BSE
C. SEBI & RBI
D. SBI & HDFC


Answer: A
Explanation: India has two central depositories — NSDL (National Securities Depository Ltd) and CDSL (Central Depository Services Ltd) — which hold securities in electronic form.

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